Level IV Exam

1. The minimum required age to apply for a personal protection endorsement is_______________________.

a. 18

b. 21

c. 25

d. 17 with parents’ permission

2. Unless in possession of a valid License to Carry, an individual acting as a personal protection

a. Is either engaged in the exclusive performance of the officer's duties as a personal protection officer for the employer under whom the officer's personal protection officer endorsement is issued.

b. Traveling to or from the officer's place of assignment.

c. carries the officer's personal protection officer commission and personal protection officer endorsement on the officer's person while performing the officer's duties or traveling as described by Subdivision (1) and presents the commission and endorsement on request.

d. all of the above

3. A personal protection officer can increase or decrease the chances of being chosen as the victim of a violent attack by the way he or she walks, moves, and carries themselves.

a. True

b. False

4. The four major options of personal protection are_________________________.

a. Level 1, Level 2, Level 3, and Level 4

b. Stun, punch, kick, takedown

c. Escape, Submission/Passive Resistance, Active Resistance, Weapons

d. None of the above

5. Every tactic or technique employed by a personal protection officer to overcome an attack will be successful 100% of the time.

a. True

b. False

6. The lowest force option for personal protection officers is __________________.

a. Verbal Communication

b. Professional Presence

c. Empty Hand Controls

d. Deadly Force

7. The last force option for personal protection officers is ________________.

a. Verbal Communication

b. Professional Presence

c. Intermediate Weapons

d. Deadly Force

8. Advance planning may eliminate the client encountering as many potential threats as possible.

a. True

b. False

9. The first step in advance planning is _______________

a. Conducting a site survey

b. Negotiating with event staff

c. Building a client profile

d. Deciding where to eat

10. In the mind of an aggressor, when the cost of an attack increases, the risk of being caught also increases.

a. True

b. False

11. Decreasing the perceived profit of an encounter by increasing the perceived cost to the potential aggressor may result in the aggressor disengaging to pursue a softer target.

a. True

b. False

12. A client profile may contain __________________.

a. Personal and Family History

b. Medical Information

c. Hobbies, Interests, and Activities

d. All of the above

13. When considering client locations, _______________________ should be documented and evaluated.

a. Alarm systems and codes

b. Remote access codes

c. Locks and keys

d. All of the above

14. Property owners, managers, and event coordinators should be contacted to help restrict access to secured areas that the client may utilize.

a. True

b. False

15. Local law enforcement contacts may be able to assist the personal protection officer in carrying out assigned duties.

a. True

b. False

16. The primary assignment of a personal protection officer is the _______________ of the client.

a. Safety

b. Comfort

c. Well being

d. Both A and C

17. A personal protection officer should not be involved in dealing with a threat or altercation unless the incident directly involves protecting the client or getting the client to a safe location.

a. True

b. False

18. Maintaining a defensive position, projecting confidence, and making eye contact are three helpful steps for utilizing __________________ by the personal protection officer in order to control his or her own actions and ultimately be able to protect others.

a. Written communication

b. Control holds

c. Non-Verbal Communication

d. None of the above

19. Publicity surrounding a client should be left to public relations personnel to handle.

a. True

b. False

20. Hard Hands/Intermediate Weapons refers to force options that may cause incapacitating injury.

a.True

b. False

21. Force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing death or serious bodily injury is the definition of:

a. Verbal Commands

b. Intermediate Weapons

c. Deadly Force

d. Soft Hands

22. The first personal protection option that should be considered in a potential confrontation should be _____________.

a. Fight

b. Escape

c. Deadly Force

d. Empty Hand Control

23. Distance is _________________.

a. Insurance

b. Not necessary

c. Optional

d. None of the above

24. When the personal protection officer feels threatened by the suspect’s actions, the Dynamic Resistance Response Model (DRM) categorizes the level of resistance as “Non-Threatening Resistance”.

a. True

b. False

25. A ____________________ suspect will seriously injure or kill the personal protection officer or another person if immediate action is not taken to stop the threat.

a. Compliant

b. Non-Threatening Resistant

c. Threatening Resistant

d. Deadly Resistant

26. Considerations involving the physical attributes of both the personal protection officer and the aggressor may include:

a. Brute Force

b. Balance Disruption

c. Inertia

d. All of the above

27. When signals are disrupted, some or all of the following conditions may occur:

a. High intensity pain which creates a mental stun phase. A mental stun phase can be described as the inability to think or react due to intense pain

b. Immediate motor dysfunction or temporary paralysis of the affected muscle or muscle groups

c. A flex-response of the affected joint. This is best described as a sudden and uncontrollable shortening of a muscle causing a flexing of the affected joint.

d. All of the above

28. Approach, Control, Placement, and Application are all steps in applying pressure points.

a. True

b. False

29. Texas Penal Code 46.05 (f) provides a ______________________ for security officers who have received training on the use of a chemical dispensing agent that is either provided by TCOLE or approved by the Private Security Board.

a. Non-applicability

b. Defense to Prosecution

c. First Degree Felony

d. None of the above

30. Only security officers that have received training provided by TCOLE may be allowed to carry a chemical dispensing device:

a. True

b. False

31. All uses of force by a personal protection officer must be reasonable and proportional

a. True

b. False

1. The minimum required age to apply for a personal protection endorsement is_______________________.

a. 18

b. 21

c. 25

d. 17 with parents’ permission

2. Unless in possession of a valid License to Carry, an individual acting as a personal protection

a. Is either engaged in the exclusive performance of the officer's duties as a personal protection officer for the employer under whom the officer's personal protection officer endorsement is issued.

b. Traveling to or from the officer's place of assignment.

d. all of the above

3. A personal protection officer can increase or decrease the chances of being chosen as the victim of a violent attack by the way he or she walks, moves, and carries themselves.

a. True

b. False

4. The four major options of personal protection are_________________________.

a. Level 1, Level 2, Level 3, and Level 4

b. Stun, punch, kick, takedown

c. Escape, Submission/Passive Resistance, Active Resistance, Weapons

d. None of the above

5. Every tactic or technique employed by a personal protection officer to overcome an attack will be successful 100% of the time.

a. True

b. False

6. The lowest force option for personal protection officers is __________________.

a. Verbal Communication

b. Professional Presence

c. Empty Hand Controls

d. Deadly Force

7. The last force option for personal protection officers is ________________.

a. Verbal Communication

b. Professional Presence

c. Intermediate Weapons

d. Deadly Force

8. Advance planning may eliminate the client encountering as many potential threats as possible.

a. True

b. False

9. The first step in advance planning is _______________

a. Conducting a site survey

b. Negotiating with event staff

c. Building a client profile

d. Deciding where to eat

10. In the mind of an aggressor, when the cost of an attack increases, the risk of being caught also increases.

a. True

b. False

11. Decreasing the perceived profit of an encounter by increasing the perceived cost to the potential aggressor may result in the aggressor disengaging to pursue a softer target.

a. True

b. False

12. A client profile may contain __________________.

a. Personal and Family History

b. Medical Information

c. Hobbies, Interests, and Activities

d. All of the above

13. When considering client locations, _______________________ should be documented and evaluated.

a. Alarm systems and codes

b. Remote access codes

c. Locks and keys

d. All of the above

14. Property owners, managers, and event coordinators should be contacted to help restrict access to secured areas that the client may utilize.

a. True

b. False

15. Local law enforcement contacts may be able to assist the personal protection officer in carrying out assigned duties.

a. True

b. False

16. The primary assignment of a personal protection officer is the _______________ of the client.

a. Safety

b. Comfort

c. Well being

d. Both A and C

17. A personal protection officer should not be involved in dealing with a threat or altercation unless the incident directly involves protecting the client or getting the client to a safe location.

a. True

b. False

a. Written communication

b. Control holds

c. Non-Verbal Communication

d. None of the above

19. Publicity surrounding a client should be left to public relations personnel to handle.

a. True

b. False

20. Hard Hands/Intermediate Weapons refers to force options that may cause incapacitating injury.

a. True

b. False

21. Force that is intended or known by the actor to cause, or in the manner of its use or intended use is capable of causing death or serious bodily injury is the definition of:

a. Verbal Commands

b. Intermediate Weapons

c. Deadly Force

d. Soft Hands

22. The first personal protection option that should be considered in a potential confrontation should be _____________.

a. Fight

b. Escape

c. Deadly Force

d. Empty Hand Control

23. Distance is _________________.

a. Insurance

b. Not necessary

c. Optional

d. None of the above

a. True

b. False

25. A ____________________ suspect will seriously injure or kill the personal protection officer or another person if immediate action is not taken to stop the threat.

a. Compliant

b. Non-Threatening Resistant

c. Threatening Resistant

d. Deadly Resistant

26. Considerations involving the physical attributes of both the personal protection officer and the aggressor may include:

a. Brute Force

b. Balance Disruption

c. Inertia

d. All of the above

27. When signals are disrupted, some or all of the following conditions may occur:

a. High intensity pain which creates a mental stun phase. A mental stun phase can be described as the inability to think or react due to intense pain

b. Immediate motor dysfunction or temporary paralysis of the affected muscle or muscle groups

c. A flex-response of the affected joint.This is best described as a sudden and uncontrollable shortening of a muscle causing a flexing of the affected joint.

d. All of the above

28. Approach, Control, Placement, and Application are all steps in applying pressure points.

a. True

b. False

a. Non-applicability

b. Defense to Prosecution

c. First Degree Felony

d. None of the above

30. Only security officers that have received training provided by TCOLE may be allowed to carry a chemical dispensing device:

a. True

b. False

31. All uses of force by a personal protection officer must be reasonable and proportional

a. True

b. False

Level IV Exam

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